[jdunford]

So a while back, I heard that the WSOP events would generally have twice as many chips as the buy-in. For example, a $5,000 buy-in event would start with 10,000 in tournament chips, the $50,000 buy-in HORSE event would start wth 100,000 in chips, etc. It was suggested that this was to deepen the stacks (at request of the poker pros), but the blinds start higher and in some cases go up faster than last year, so it really didn't change anything.

Well, I just started glancing at some of the event structures and noticed that the $10,000 buy-in Main Event has just 3,000 in starting chips! Can that be correct?

Here's a link to all the 2007 WSOP tournaments/structures:
http://www.worldseriesofpoker.com/to...sp?groupID=309

(if this has been discussed elsewhere - as it probably has - please let me know)

*EDIT* Okay, turns out this is just a typo on the WSOP site. $10,000 main event will start with 20,000 in chips. In any case, I'm interested in discussion of the tournament structures. See post 4 on.

[scottwire]

I think someone just posted this same thing like yesterday

That text on the bottom is for the $1500 event.
"Play will resume at 2 PM on June 3, 2007"

The blinds are correct, just that the text below is not. Somebody just screwed up on the website.

[links_slayer]

It's been discussed here.

[jdunford]

Originally Posted by links_slayer

It's been discussed here.

Okay. Good, thanks. I'm glad it's just a typo. So the main event starts with 20,000 in chips.

So does anybody else think it's stupid to start each tournament with twice as many chips as the buy-in? Why not just start the blinds lower or slow the progression to doubling every 4 levels instead of every 3? What's the difference?

I always thought it was sort of classic that the WSOP gives you 1 chip for every dollar of buy-in. It gives the audience an idea of scale; when somebody makes a 5,000,000 bet at the final table, that's literally equivalent to $5,000,000 worth of buy-in that just got pushed in as one bet. Of course, it's a tournament, so the chips technically have "no cash value", can't be cashed out, and really wouldn't be worth that much even if they could be, since other prizes, along with vig and employee cut, etc., have been taken out. But still... seems like it used to mean something.

[jdunford]

Updated the OP.

I have to admit, I'm lucky I got lots of the non-denom quarter-pie Samurais, 'cause I'll need 'em for my next HORSE tournament (T100,000; use the non-denoms as a T10,000 chip for single table, or a T25,000 for 2 tables). It took nearly a year to organize and host my first T50,000 HORSE, and it's already obsolete. Doh!

[w16227]

Originally Posted by jdunford

Updated the OP.

I have to admit, I'm lucky I got lots of the non-denom quarter-pie Samurais, 'cause I'll need 'em for my next HORSE tournament (T100,000; use the non-denoms as a T10,000 chip for single table, or a T25,000 for 2 tables). It took nearly a year to organize and host my first T50,000 HORSE, and it's already obsolete. Doh!

DOH - where was my invite???????????

[w16227]

I think that a lot of this is related to some of the lower buyin tournies. For 1000 in chips, you cannot really do less than 25/25 blinds, and this quickly becomes a crapshoot. They adjusted the levels to try and allow for some play earlier, yet still finish in a reasonable timeframe.

Also, the stud and mixed games do not require low denom chips. I do not know how the Rio handled this, but Horeshoe had T5 and maybe T1 chips made up at one point for stud games (antes). The drawback is that they still did not have low chips for one-two blind levels, instead there was a moving ante button where one player chipped in T100 for the table during the 50/100 round.

Originally Posted by jdunford

Okay. Good, thanks. I'm glad it's just a typo. So the main event starts with 20,000 in chips.

So does anybody else think it's stupid to start each tournament with twice as many chips as the buy-in? Why not just start the blinds lower or slow the progression to doubling every 4 levels instead of every 3? What's the difference?

I always thought it was sort of classic that the WSOP gives you 1 chip for every dollar of buy-in. It gives the audience an idea of scale; when somebody makes a 5,000,000 bet at the final table, that's literally equivalent to $5,000,000 worth of buy-in that just got pushed in as one bet. Of course, it's a tournament, so the chips technically have "no cash value", can't be cashed out, and really wouldn't be worth that much even if they could be, since other prizes, along with vig and employee cut, etc., have been taken out. But still... seems like it used to mean something.

[jdunford]

Originally Posted by w16227

DOH - where was my invite???????????

Well, I knew you were busy in LV with the WSOP and all...

Action shots can be seen here:
http://individual.utoronto.ca/jdunfo....html#CPT-ToC2
(small turn-out, but it was fun)

[jmc]

When I compared the 2007 structure to the 2006 structure, I noticed that for the later levels, blinds were larger in the 2007 structure than the 2006 structure, relative to starting stack sizes.