[ace-in-space]

Why do TV poker announcers add the un-called portion of the bet as a part of the final pot? For example: Player A bets $20,000 on the river into a $40,000 pot (this could be either a cash game or a tourney, makes no difference) and Player B (the lone remaining contestant) mucks. Announcer: "Player A rakes in a $60,000 pot." Come on! The pot is only $40,000! Lon McCaren, Mike Sexton, and Gabe Kaplan all do the same thing (and the latter 2 should know better since they are poker pros.)

I know it is sexy and all but it doesn't make it right.

[jojobinks]

b/c they want you to get all hot and bothered.

party poker does this too. you bet $100 into a one dollar pot and as you rake it it says "congratulations, mwfeldman, you won a $101 pot!!!!"


wooooohoo

[legend]

A great player like JOJO binks wouldn't bet $100 into a $1 pot ....or would you?

[jalsing]

Well, I guess once you bet, technically the chips are not longer yours and are part of the pot.

Same thing if you bet 20, get called. Bet 20 again, the guy folds. You rake 40 (or 60) but really you made 20.

[Irish Se7en]

Originally Posted by jalsing

Well, I guess once you bet, technically the chips are not longer yours and are part of the pot.

Same thing if you bet 20, get called. Bet 20 again, the guy folds. You rake 40 (or 60) but really you made 20.

Bingo! That money no longer is yours once the bet is made so they would be correct. Though you might have made only "X" as profit, you would still would "rake" in the total amount.

Also, I can't believe jojo over bet the pot like that, nh sir!

[Captn_All_In]

Didn't Harrington mention something like this...or was it Caro? Yea I think Caro said it in his tells book about losing money vs winning money. IDK I read it somewhere though...

[2_hotty]

Originally Posted by jalsing

Well, I guess once you bet, technically the chips are not longer yours and are part of the pot.

Are they?

Let's say you're sitting at a 1/2, 10% rake table. There are $3 in the blind, and you raise to $20. No one calls, and you take down the blinds. Should the dealer rake $2 from that pot?

[Harlequin011]

Originally Posted by 2_hotty

Are they?

Let's say you're sitting at a 1/2, 10% rake table. There are $3 in the blind, and you raise to $20. No one calls, and you take down the blinds. Should the dealer rake $2 from that pot?

No Flop no drop.

I don't think the local casino here rakes on uncalled bets.

Back to the OP. Once you bet it's in the pot, it's just not profit. It's not like you don't count the money you put in building the pot either.

[Captn_All_In]

Originally Posted by 2_hotty

Let's say you're sitting at a 1/2, 10% rake table. There are $3 in the blind, and you raise to $20. No one calls, and you take down the blinds. Should the dealer rake $2 from that pot?

From my experience from online sites the minimum is put out and the rest is taken back...so if you are the button and make that raise and they both fold only $2 goes into the pot and the rest is returned to your stack...at least that is what I think I remember happening...

[2_hotty]

Well, I know the pot doesn't get raked in my above scenario. At least not in any casino I've ever played. I was just using it as an example of your bet not being part of the pot, unless it goes in the pot.

I think the announcers say it the way they do on TV to make it more exciting. It annoys me too.