[ky70]

A friend of mine just told me about a hand he was in at the casino last night (2/5 no limit).

I'm missing the money/betting details on all streets but the river but friend had


friend and villian are heads up

the flop came

Turn comes


River comes


Villian goes all-in and friend FOLDS. Villian shows one 6 and mucks the other card. Friend STILL believes that villian had pocket 6s and that he was beat and made a good lay down. Ignore the fact that my friend lost his mind and made one of the worst lay downs in history...I want to know what the odds are that a player and an opponent both have pocket pairs AND both of the hands hit four of a kind (which I don't believe was the case here). So not just the odds of two hands hitting 4 of a kind but of two hands hitting 4 of a kind that both started out as pocket pairs.

Thanks.

[hachkc]

I don't know what the odds are but I go flat out broke everytime with quads, no ifs ands or buts.

I've lost with quads before but simply chock it up to bad luck and move on plus it was Omaha.

[noelsarchs]

If someone has the money and guts to be at a no limit table, and flops quads then folds under pressure, maybe it's time for them to join me down on the 10 cent tables and leave the no limit game for others.

[Johnny5]

Originally Posted by ky70

Ignore the fact that my friend lost his mind and made one of the worst lay downs in history...

Sorry, thats impossible!

[Jambine]

I’m going from memory here, but I think the odds of getting quads in the first 5 cards is (about) 4,000:1. Not sure about two people doing it with 7 cards, but I guess it would be about…. uhmm… see Johnny5’s post above for the exact figure.

[D3scride]

There's just no way you can possibly fold here. 99.99% of the time he's just got the 6, or possibly Q6. If the guy did have quads, then kudos to your friend for making a sick laydown. However, it's still a horrible laydown.

As far as the odds of flopping quads with a specific pocket pair:

In this situation you have 22. So to flop quads you need 1 random card and both of the remaining 2s.

(2 / 49) * (1 / 4 * (47 / 47) = 0.000850340136



EDIT: I did the math based on each possible flop permutation ( 2x2, 22x, x22) and it averages out to the same number as above.

[hachkc]

In my opinion, most folks with quads would usually show them especially if he shows one of his cards. I'm guessing he didn't show the other card because he was playing some suited 3 gapper like T6 and was embarrased; Q6 and A6 are also possibilities.

[kimdol13]

Sorry, don't know the odds of that, but last night in at an 8 player table had quads 3 hands in a row. The last time, three other people had full houses. Needless to say, much money exchanged hands on that one.

[hachkc]

Originally Posted by D3scride

However, it's still a horrible laydown.

I think Lee Jones or someone else made a comment about sets that goes something like this:

If you don't go broke with an underset, then you misplayed it.

This advice applies to quads 100 fold.

[ky70]

Originally Posted by hachkc

In my opinion, most folks with quads would usually show them especially if he shows one of his cards...

EXACTLY...we tried to tell him that this was confirmation that the guy was playing a full boat...if villian bothered to show 1 card he would have showed both cards if he had quads. From some other details that I can't remember right now, I truly believe that the villian thought he was in there against a smaller boat (2s over 6s) and tried to show my friend that he had him "beat". My other friend and I joked that everyone at the table would have laughed him out of the casino if they knew he folded 4 of a kind. Needless to say will we "riding" this friend for a long time to come on this one.