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04-02-2008, 11:32 AM
|  | ChipTalk.net Article Writer | | Join Date: Feb 2006 Location: O-H-I-O Age: 35
Posts: 2,187
Chips: 223 | | | whats the proper ruling I got an email from a friend with an intersting question here it is I had never given this situation much thought but I saw 2 similar instances of this playing Holdem on my computer. The one hand had the dealer flop Jack, 8, Queen. Then on the turn a 10 came up and the river was a 9. So by the end only two players were left so they both had a straight. They showed the players hands and one had Ace and a 2. The other had a 9 and a 5 so I figured it was a split pot. However the player with the 9 won since he did not have to rely on the board entirely to make the straight. The other situation was that 3 sixes, an 8 and a Jack came up. One person had an 8 in their hand for a full house but the other had pocket 8s. So both had the same full house but the player with pocket 8s won. Both make sense to me why each hand was decided that way but have you ever run across this. I always believed that if both players had the same 5 card hand regardless if it was community or using cards they were holding, it was a split pot.
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04-02-2008, 11:48 AM
|  | Poker Nerd (and Admin) | | Join Date: Mar 2005 Location: bottom pair and a flush draw Age: 35
Posts: 10,587
Chips: 16,654 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling Quote:
Originally Posted by WolfPack I got an email from a friend with an intersting question here it is I had never given this situation much thought but I saw 2 similar instances of this playing Holdem on my computer. The one hand had the dealer flop Jack, 8, Queen. Then on the turn a 10 came up and the river was a 9. So by the end only two players were left so they both had a straight. They showed the players hands and one had Ace and a 2. The other had a 9 and a 5 so I figured it was a split pot. However the player with the 9 won since he did not have to rely on the board entirely to make the straight. The other situation was that 3 sixes, an 8 and a Jack came up. One person had an 8 in their hand for a full house but the other had pocket 8s. So both had the same full house but the player with pocket 8s won. Both make sense to me why each hand was decided that way but have you ever run across this. I always believed that if both players had the same 5 card hand regardless if it was community or using cards they were holding, it was a split pot. | no...no. best 5 card hand wins. cards in hand = cards on board. was this a crappy chinese $2.50 program? | 
04-02-2008, 11:49 AM
|  | | | Join Date: Mar 2006 Location: Washington State
Posts: 1,751
Chips: 446 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling That is just crazy imo. The best 5 cards win, regardless of where they come from. AFAIK in every card room I have been in both instances would be split pots (except in your second example player A had 66688 and player B had 88866 so player B should have been awarded the pot with the larger boat). But I assume you meant where the 3 like cards on the board were a higher rank than the 8's in your example.
- Couga
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04-02-2008, 11:51 AM
|  | ChipTalk.net Article Writer | | Join Date: Feb 2006 Location: O-H-I-O Age: 35
Posts: 2,187
Chips: 223 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling Quote:
Originally Posted by jojobinks no...no. best 5 card hand wins. cards in hand = cards on board. was this a crappy chinese $2.50 program? | thanks for verifying jojo, that's what I thought to.
might as well have been a crappy $2.50 program, it is the hold 'em game that comes with Vista.
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04-02-2008, 11:53 AM
|  | On the Bubble | | Join Date: Mar 2007 Location: Miss Michigan
Posts: 152
Chips: 204 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling Same hand is always a split pot regardless of what cards make it. In the second case, the guy with pocket 8s had the better hand: 8s full of 6s vs. 6s full of 8s. The first case is not possible in standard rules Hold'em. There must have been a flush out there as well. Do you have the hand history? Quote:
Originally Posted by WolfPack I got an email from a friend with an intersting question here it is I had never given this situation much thought but I saw 2 similar instances of this playing Holdem on my computer. The one hand had the dealer flop Jack, 8, Queen. Then on the turn a 10 came up and the river was a 9. So by the end only two players were left so they both had a straight. They showed the players hands and one had Ace and a 2. The other had a 9 and a 5 so I figured it was a split pot. However the player with the 9 won since he did not have to rely on the board entirely to make the straight. The other situation was that 3 sixes, an 8 and a Jack came up. One person had an 8 in their hand for a full house but the other had pocket 8s. So both had the same full house but the player with pocket 8s won. Both make sense to me why each hand was decided that way but have you ever run across this. I always believed that if both players had the same 5 card hand regardless if it was community or using cards they were holding, it was a split pot. | | 
04-02-2008, 11:58 AM
| | Creativity Alliance | | Join Date: Jan 2006 Location: UTG Age: 41
Posts: 2,058
Chips: 3,633 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling In a cash game, to qualify for a bad beat jackpot, don't some (or all) places require that both hole cards play? I know it's different than the situation in the OP, but... | 
04-02-2008, 12:00 PM
|  | ChipTalk.net Article Writer | | Join Date: Feb 2006 Location: O-H-I-O Age: 35
Posts: 2,187
Chips: 223 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling Quote:
Originally Posted by Cidertown Same hand is always a split pot regardless of what cards make it. In the second case, the guy with pocket 8s had the better hand: 8s full of 6s vs. 6s full of 8s. The first case is not possible in standard rules Hold'em. There must have been a flush out there as well. Do you have the hand history? | i got the email from a friend, i wasn't involved in the hand and he was just playing on the computer not a poker site.
Your right about the second hand, I didn't read that once close enough.
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04-02-2008, 12:03 PM
|  | Creativity Alliance | | Join Date: Sep 2005 Location: Edmonton
Posts: 1,616
Chips: 5,114 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling First hand - as everyone said, 5 cards play... are you sure the other player didn't Have a K instead of and A?
Second hand - Player one has 6's full of eights. Player two has eights full of sixes. Higher FH wins - (they don't have the same FH).
Edit - oops, too slow, sorry for redundancy.
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04-02-2008, 01:58 PM
|  | In the Money | | Join Date: Jan 2008 Location: Lakewood, CO
Posts: 364
Chips: 281 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling Quote:
Originally Posted by aquaman In a cash game, to qualify for a bad beat jackpot, don't some (or all) places require that both hole cards play? I know it's different than the situation in the OP, but... | Yes, all the casinos I've been to in Colorado require both hole cards (on both hands) to play to qualify for the bad beat. | 
04-02-2008, 04:30 PM
|  | Creativity Alliance | | Join Date: Sep 2005 Location: Edmonton
Posts: 1,616
Chips: 5,114 | | | Re: whats the proper ruling Quote:
Originally Posted by aquaman In a cash game, to qualify for a bad beat jackpot, don't some (or all) places require that both hole cards play? I know it's different than the situation in the OP, but... | Depends on the casino... almost everywhere I've been require both cards to play, but Harvey's at South Shore Tahoe only require 1 card. I got a table share there when someones small SF lost to a larger SF, and the small SF only played one card. Everywhere else I've been it's been two cards though.
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