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View Poll Results: Does it bother you when another players mentions they folded one of your outs
Yes 21 26.92%
No 34 43.59%
Dont care either way 23 29.49%
Voters: 78. You may not vote on this poll

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  #11 (permalink)     Top 
Old 03-30-2006, 05:41 PM
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jamby jamby is offline
 
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

It doesn't phase me either way.

-jamby
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  #12 (permalink)     Top 
Old 03-30-2006, 05:53 PM
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ink_junkie ink_junkie is offline
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

As long as the action is over, i don't care one way or another. Kinda nice to know if someone did fold one of my outs just from an expectation point of view.

I suppose some folks could get annoyed depending on how the info is provided. If it's said as in a "bummer dude, i folded one of your outs" context i think it's fine, but if it comes out as "You fool, you're screwed because i folded one of your outs" then people might get ticked (horribly constructed sentence, sorry about that).
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Old 03-30-2006, 06:54 PM
FreckleDaddy FreckleDaddy is offline
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

I don't really care if someone says something like that when all the action is done. That being said I usually never say anything myself, maybe when the hand is over, but usually not.

Fd
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Old 03-30-2006, 10:49 PM
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dad604 dad604 is offline
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

I am one that doesn't care if the action is truly over but I still would prefer everyone not to say anything. I personally keep my mouth shut.
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Old 03-31-2006, 05:35 AM
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

As an act of coutesey, I wait until the hand is over before deciding to pass on any additional information.
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  #16 (permalink)     Top 
Old 03-31-2006, 06:42 AM
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

Quote:
Originally Posted by PFunk
When in a hand
That is the key here. I say, if the the hand is in play, butt out.

Last edited by Jambine : 03-31-2006 at 07:03 AM.
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Old 03-31-2006, 09:18 AM
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

I never believe anything that's said at the table anyway. For example, after laying down your hand, the winner of the pot says to you "good laydown" but doesn't show his alleged good hand. I don't believe the guy one way or another unless he shows it. You really can't believe anything anyone says.
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Old 03-31-2006, 09:28 AM
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

Good point legend... I remember watching a hand on TV (I don't recall the specifics, but basically it went like this):

======================

Player A: rags
Player B: A,Q
Player C: 10, 10

Flop: A, 9, Q

A: Check
B: Big Bet
C: Raise
A: "I can't believe I am going to lay this down..." Fold.
B: All in
C: Call

A: "I had pocket queens"

Turn: Q

B: "I thought you had pocket queens?"

A: "No, I said pocket 9's..."

======================

Why do I think Scotty Nguyen was involved? Maybe because he always lies about his hands, baby.
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Old 03-31-2006, 01:29 PM
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wijwij wijwij is offline
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

Quote:
Originally Posted by Wedge Rock
If I have K-Q against J-J and the flop misses us both, there are 7 cards out.

The chances of me making another {K or Q} are (1-(39/45)) + (1-(38/44)) = 24.7%
If someone tells me they folded a K (or a Q), my chances are (1-(39/44)) + (1-(38/43)) = 20.6%
The math you are using to calculate probabilities is fundamentally flawed, Wedge Rock.

Those probabilities are wrong, and not because they ignore the slim chance of a Jack
helping your opponent. You are adding probabilities that do not give you the correct
answer. You can't just add the chance of hitting an out on turn and hitting an out
on the river, because you need to WEIGHT the latter probability according to how often it happens.

To clarify -- consider what would happen if you use your reasoning to find out the
probability of getting heads if you flip a coin two times. Using your reasoning, you
would say that your chances of getting heads on the first or second toss (or both)
is 1/2 + 1/2 = 1 = 100%, but we know that's not true.

The correct calculation of hitting a K or Q on turn or river (or both) is the sum
of the probability of hitting a K or Q on the turn (6/45) plus the probability
of hitting a K or Q on the river GIVEN that the first card was not a K or Q:

Your method:
P(hit out knowing nothing) = (6/45) + (6/44) = 26.9%
P(knowing one out is gone) = (5/44) + (5/43) = 22.9%

Correct method:
P(hit out knowing nothing) = (6/45) + (39/45)(6/44) = 25.2%
P(knowing one out is gone) = (5/44) + (39/44)(5/43) = 21.7%

Your overall point that learning one out is gone only affects your chances by about
4% is still valid.

But your seat-of-the-pants method of adding probabilities is not
something you should use in play, since it is going to always
lead you towards OVERSESTIMATING your chances of hitting your
outs, and as a result you are probably UNDERESTIMATING the pot odds
you need to justify calls. In the long run, this might be causing you
to make the fundamental mistake of calling when you don't actually have
the correct pot odds.

Checking the Math

Another way of thinking about this, and a way of checking the math above, is to
find the chances that you are NOT helped on the turn and NOT helped on the river,
and subtract that from 1.

If you know nothing about folded outs (45 unseen cards):

P(hit on turn or river or both)
= 1 - P(nonout on turn, nonout on river)
= 1 - [(39/45) x (38/44)]
= 1 - 0.748
= 0.252
= 25.2%

If you learn that one of your outs was folded (44 unseen cards):

P(hit on turn or river or both)
= 1 - P(nonout on turn, nonout on river)
= 1 - [(39/44) x (38/43)]
= 1 - 0.783
= 0.217
= 21.7%


The same approach can be used with the coin toss scenario:

P(heads on first or second toss or both)
= 1 - P(tails, tails)
= 1 - [(1/2) x (1/2)]
= 1 - (1/4)
= 0.75
= 75%

This agrees with our understanding that 3 out of the 4 possible outcomes
(HH, HT, TH, TT) involve at least one head showing up. Only 1 out of the
4 possible outcomes is unfavorable.
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  #20 (permalink)     Top 
Old 03-31-2006, 02:45 PM
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Re: A Poker Ettiquette Question

Sorry in advance for the threadjack here.

Wijwij, you seem to have a point. I can't argue with your coin flip analogy. Help me work through it.

I'm trying to understand *why* you are multiplying by the second factor in the second part of the equation...

Assume: 7 cards up, 6 outs available.

We agree on the first part of the probability (missing on the turn): [1 - (39/45)] 0r [6/45]

Now, you give two ways to factor the river miss, assuming a turn miss*:

* I think this was the part I missed in my calculation

(6/45) + (39/45)(6/44)

This makes sense to me... First, the probability of hitting the turn, then the probability of hitting the river multipled by (or diminshed by) the probability that you missed the turn.

Your other formula is:

1-((39/45)x(38/44))

I understand the concept of subtracting from 1, but I don't understand the rationale behind multiplying the two numbers before subtracting from one. I put the two formulas into Excel and got the exact same result... Which means they are the mathematical equivalent.

Help me understand the logic.

Thanks.
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